Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › *** F7 June 2016 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***
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- June 7, 2016 at 7:25 pm #320537
Not enough time. Too many notes for question 3.Too much calculation for the MC. Question 2 was confusing. Question 1 was perfect. Lucky to get 50%.
June 7, 2016 at 7:30 pm #320539If we both ended up with the cumulative acquisition profit of -1200 it is evident that we both had the same beginning.
Your -1200 included the post aquksition decrease of -200
I can not remember all the beg figures. but i remember parts. I normally spit Retained earnings b/f into B/F Retained earnings and then the Profit
I know for the profit for the year the time apportioned B/F was -1500 with the post also equaling to -1500
the FV amounts was the decrease in FV with an add back of 500
Then the intangible asset adjustment with an adjustment being made for the amortization costs
Plus the FV addition as an asset.
What was your answer for the convertible loan notes. I think my issue here was too much rounding
June 7, 2016 at 7:30 pm #32054035 on vost is mar up
@christa316 said:
But it said it was 35% of costDidnt it say that the markup was 35% of cost… and wasn’t the cost listed as the cost to the Parent?
Oh thats why I had the difference then. I swore that was the cost to the parent so I calculated the markup to find the profit and that was the PURP
35 on cost is mark up
June 7, 2016 at 7:34 pm #320543@christa316 said:
If we both ended up with the cumulative acquisition profit of -1200 it is evident that we both had the same beginning.Your -1200 included the post aquksition decrease of -200
I can not remember all the beg figures. but i remember parts. I normally spit Retained earnings b/f into B/F Retained earnings and then the Profit
I know for the profit for the year the time apportioned B/F was -1500 with the post also equaling to -1500
the FV amounts was the decrease in FV with an add back of 500
Then the intangible asset adjustment with an adjustment being made for the amortization costs
Plus the FV addition as an asset.
What was your answer for the convertible loan notes. I think my issue here was too much rounding
Christa, ehy didnt u have pre acquisition of 7100? 8600 at april 15 minus 1500 pre acquistion loss?
June 7, 2016 at 7:36 pm #320545@christa316 said:
If we both ended up with the cumulative acquisition profit of -1200 it is evident that we both had the same beginning.Your -1200 included the post aquksition decrease of -200
I can not remember all the beg figures. but i remember parts. I normally spit Retained earnings b/f into B/F Retained earnings and then the Profit
I know for the profit for the year the time apportioned B/F was -1500 with the post also equaling to -1500
the FV amounts was the decrease in FV with an add back of 500
Then the intangible asset adjustment with an adjustment being made for the amortization costs
Plus the FV addition as an asset.
What was your answer for the convertible loan notes. I think my issue here was too much rounding
Christa, about which amortization you are talking about? As far as zi remember, there were no any intangibles
June 7, 2016 at 7:43 pm #320549You had 45% and no other SH had greater than 1% .. I said that didn’t signify control, hence not a Subsid. Could be wrong though.
June 7, 2016 at 7:45 pm #320550@gavin23 said:
You had 45% and no other SH had greater than 1% .. I said that didn’t signify control, hence not a Subsid. Could be wrong though.It seems i got caught on this one!
June 7, 2016 at 7:45 pm #320551@gavin23 said:
You had 45% and no other SH had greater than 1% .. I said that didn’t signify control, hence not a Subsid. Could be wrong though.What about other mcqs?
June 7, 2016 at 7:46 pm #320552yup i remember very well..and you would have missed if you included the 1% shareholding of everyone else as giving control to the 45% ownership. still the 45% can be outvoted in an agm. no control whatsoever and thus not a subsidiary
June 7, 2016 at 7:48 pm #320553There was a cgu impairment where you wrote off gw first by 7500 and then had to proportion the other 6500 I think between plant and buildings .. They both added up to 100 so was straight forward enough.
June 7, 2016 at 7:49 pm #320554@faizsaid said:
yup i remember very well..and you would have missed if you included the 1% shareholding of everyone else as giving control to the 45% ownership. still the 45% can be outvoted in an agm. no control whatsoever and thus not a subsidiaryAny other tricky mcqs?
June 7, 2016 at 7:50 pm #320555@gavin23 said:
There was a cgu impairment where you wrote off gw first by 7500 and then had to proportion the other 6500 I think between plant and buildings .. They both added up to 100 so was straight forward enough.That one was easy
June 7, 2016 at 7:52 pm #320556@emo777 said:
Is there someone who remembers the mcq about 45% subsidiary control criteria?Yes there were 3 out of 4 options to select;
55% ordinary shares
45% ordinary shares with remainder owned by small unconnected parties
45% where the company would control operating policyJune 7, 2016 at 7:52 pm #320557What was your pre acquistion in Q1?
June 7, 2016 at 7:53 pm #320558@accastudent1986 said:
Yes there were 3 out of 4 options to select;
55% ordinary shares
45% ordinary shares with remainder owned by small unconnected parties
45% where the company would control operating policyI got the same, but are you sure? Other guys say the opposite
June 7, 2016 at 7:58 pm #320562@emo777 said:
I got the same, but are you sure? Other guys say the oppositeIFRS 10 states control exists when;
“holding less than 50% of the voting shares, with all other equity interests held by a numerically large, dispersed and unconnected group;”June 7, 2016 at 8:00 pm #320565@emo777 said:
What was your pre acquistion in Q1?Q1 on section A? What was question?
June 7, 2016 at 8:00 pm #320566I also think you missed the one where we were to state if an asset/liability exists. its not only the warranty claims that give rise to a provision(present obligation), but also the case where it was likely to receive compensation. this gives rise to a contingent asset (which is still an asset anyway).
June 7, 2016 at 8:01 pm #320568@faizsaid said:
I also think you missed the one where we were to state if an asset/liability exists. its not only the warranty claims that give rise to a provision(present obligation), but also the case where it was likely to receive compensation. this gives rise to a contingent asset (which is still an asset anyway).Contingent asset is only mentioned in notes and not capitalised – only if virtually certain
June 7, 2016 at 8:03 pm #320569@faizsaid said:
I also think you missed the one where we were to state if an asset/liability exists. its not only the warranty claims that give rise to a provision(present obligation), but also the case where it was likely to receive compensation. this gives rise to a contingent asset (which is still an asset anyway).Bro, i think u missed it. Agree eith accastudent1986
June 7, 2016 at 8:04 pm #320571@accastudent1986 said:
Q1 on section A? What was question?Yeah bro, in goodwill calculation, what was your pre acquisition? They had opening retained earnings of 8600 and 3000 loss for the year
June 7, 2016 at 8:09 pm #320574Don’t see how middle one gives control
June 7, 2016 at 8:11 pm #320577@gavin23 said:
Don’t see how middle one gives controlAs it was mentiined, IFRS 10 states control exists when;
“holding less than 50% of the voting shares, with all other equity interests held by a numerically large, dispersed and unconnected group;”Also, they gave two optiins with 45%. That seemed fishy to me.
June 7, 2016 at 8:13 pm #320581Can’t argue with the IFRS … Woh, I was thinking 15 plus in the MCQ’s .. Could be lucky to have 10.
June 7, 2016 at 8:13 pm #320582@emo777 said:
Yeah bro, in goodwill calculation, what was your pre acquisition? They had opening retained earnings of 8600 and 3000 loss for the yearI think it ended up as 8600-1500 as 1500 of the loss occurred post-aquisition
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