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F6 UK Dec 2010 paper Q1

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA TX Taxation Forums › F6 UK Dec 2010 paper Q1

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by Avatarbeatasz.
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  • April 7, 2013 at 11:13 am #121719
    Avatarbeatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    Hi guys,

    I am doing Q1 Revised and it say that “Joe was provied with free loan of £120000 on 1st May2012. He repaid £50000 on 31 July 12 andpaid the balance of £70000 when he ceased employment with company on 31st Dec 12.
    To calculate the benefit using the average method the answer is (120000+70000)/2
    My question is why 70000 not 0 as at the end of his employment the balance outstanding is 0 not 70000?
    thanks for your help.

    Beata

    April 8, 2013 at 3:59 pm #121926
    Avatarmatthew
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    His balance was 0 when he left the employment however he enjoyed the benefit of the £70,000 free loan up to the moment he left the employment

    Where does one get the revised questions from??

    April 8, 2013 at 8:13 pm #121929
    Avatarbeatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    HI Matthew – thanks for your replay. All the past papers updated with the rates and allowances for 2012/13 you can get from Practice & Revision Kit FA2012. I bought ine from BPP for £18.
    Hope this helps!
    Beata

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