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*** F6 June 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA TX Taxation Forums › *** F6 June 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***

  • This topic has 133 replies, 72 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by opentuition_team.
Viewing 25 posts - 101 through 125 (of 134 total)
← 1 2 3 4 5 6 →
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 5, 2015 at 1:37 pm #253619
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    Question 3 I think its A

    23700- 10400( current yr loss)
    =13,300
    Loss c/f (2300)
    =11,000(AE)
    Loss c/f 6100-2300= 3800

    June 5, 2015 at 1:40 pm #253620
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    Q4 it’s B and Q8 B

    June 5, 2015 at 1:49 pm #253621
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    @chris165 said:
    Accounting period spans two tax years so you have to apportion appropriately:

    4/12 * 23% * 1380000 + 8/12 * 21% * 1380000

    That gives B: £299000

    U r right but it’s not tax year it’s financial yr 1/4/2013 to 31/3/2014
    1/4/2014 to 31/3/2015

    June 5, 2015 at 1:53 pm #253622
    chris165
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 56
    • ☆☆

    @gawcram said:
    Question 3 I think its A

    23700- 10400( current yr loss)
    =13,300
    Loss c/f (2300)
    =11,000(AE)
    Loss c/f 6100-2300= 3800

    This is what you would normally do to minimise tax but as the question is stated, £6100 is correct

    June 5, 2015 at 1:57 pm #253625
    chris165
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 56
    • ☆☆

    @gawcram said:
    Q4 it’s B and Q8 B

    Q8 no – because the cash released (£41000) is greater than the capital gain, there is no rollover relief available.

    June 5, 2015 at 2:19 pm #253629
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    @chris165 said:
    Q8 no – because the cash released (£41000) is greater than the capital gain, there is no rollover relief available.

    I missed that.. 🙁 u r right

    June 5, 2015 at 2:22 pm #253631
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    @chris165 said:
    This is what you would normally do to minimise tax but as the question is stated, £6100 is correct

    Can u please explain a bit?

    June 5, 2015 at 2:23 pm #253633
    Geshi
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    Q 9 I think its B

    June 5, 2015 at 2:29 pm #253636
    Jay
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    @gawcram said:
    Q 9 I think its B

    I thought it was B too. Because amendments and checks are allowed within 12 months of the submission of the self-assessment tax return.

    June 5, 2015 at 2:56 pm #253640
    Jay
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    @jayedchoudhury@hotmail.com said:
    I thought it was B too. Because amendments and checks are allowed within 12 months of the submission of the self-assessment tax return.

    Actually on second thoughts, I think this is wrong. Guess we’ll find out when OT submits its suggested answers.

    June 5, 2015 at 4:15 pm #253665
    levi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    It was a manageable paper. Cant remember the mcqs unless I see the questions.Anyone can say where these can be found? Thanks to OT you lectures are really helpful…Hope I got a pass

    June 5, 2015 at 6:46 pm #254067
    antoine
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    For question 1 IHT, according to bpp, the revised nil rate will apply to the calculation of the additional death tax on CLTs and PETs made by the donor and death tax on the donor’s death estate. There is no clue that the transfer nil rate band can be used for the lifetime IHT calculation.

    June 7, 2015 at 12:54 pm #254766
    arslan14
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    Will someone please upload the correct answers of MCQ’s?

    June 7, 2015 at 12:55 pm #254768
    arslan14
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆

    Team #OpenTution please upload the answers of MCQs.

    June 8, 2015 at 1:19 pm #255085
    Charlotte
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Open tuition. How long until the answers are posted please?

    June 8, 2015 at 2:39 pm #255106
    Alex
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Can anyone help with question 3, even now looking at the exam again I’m still not sure how to approach this one.

    I was working through the BPP revision kit, and don’t recall seeing any questions like this so it threw me somewhat in the exam.

    June 9, 2015 at 5:18 am #255386
    mhdi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    f6 was good

    June 9, 2015 at 8:16 pm #255764
    Jayadev
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    Indexation allowance can never create or increase loss

    June 9, 2015 at 10:00 pm #255813
    levi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Have some of those answers. can anyone say when we will see the suggested F6 answers

    June 10, 2015 at 10:43 am #255949
    Rashid
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    F6 paper was ok, I attempted approx 90% paper, last time i attempted this paper in December but failed, this time my paper was much better and hope I would pass this time. Thanks to Open tuition for their services and Good luck to all students.

    June 10, 2015 at 3:10 pm #256028
    haider
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    I think q3 is quite straightforward, you need to compare what tax is being paying as self-employed to becomes limited. it all mentioned in question itself,

    since self-employed tax worked for you, you all need limited tax liabilities .

    1 Corporation tax at 20% (100000*0.20)=£20000
    2-Income tax(180000-10000pa)=8000*0.20=£1600
    3-NIC class 1 pre employee 18000-7865*0.12=£1216
    4-NIC class 1 sec employer 18000-7865*0.138=£1398
    5-Dividens 31865*0.10=3186.5
    8135*0.325=2643
    Then you add them up and compare them to self-employed figure and state which one is more beneficial to taxpayer.

    I hope this will give you an idea

    June 10, 2015 at 3:32 pm #256039
    Hermain
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    Even I did that!

    June 10, 2015 at 4:31 pm #256090
    haider
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    @se3addick said:
    Can anyone help with question 3, even now looking at the exam again I’m still not sure how to approach this one.

    I was working through the BPP revision kit, and don’t recall seeing any questions like this so it threw me somewhat in the exam.

    I think q3 is quite straightforward, you need to compare what tax is being paying as self-employed to becomes limited. it all mentioned in question itself,

    since self-employed tax worked for you, you all need limited tax liabilities .

    1 Corporation tax at 20% (100000*0.20)=£20000
    2-Income tax(180000-10000pa)=8000*0.20=£1600
    3-NIC class 1 pre employee 18000-7865*0.12=£1216
    4-NIC class 1 sec employer 18000-7865*0.138=£1398
    5-Dividens 31865*0.10=3186.5
    8135*0.325=2643
    Then you add them up and compare them to self-employed figure and state which one is more beneficial to taxpayer.

    I hope this will give you an idea

    June 10, 2015 at 4:43 pm #256102
    haider
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Q2

    2) MV Cost

    Cash 6.5*100000 65000 19500 shares 4.5*10000 45000 13500
    Total 110000 33000

    CG Proceeds 65000
    Cost (19500)
    Gain 45500
    AS it cash will be Taxed immediately

    June 10, 2015 at 6:39 pm #256156
    accastudent1986
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    @haider85 said:
    I think q3 is quite straightforward, you need to compare what tax is being paying as self-employed to becomes limited. it all mentioned in question itself,

    since self-employed tax worked for you, you all need limited tax liabilities .

    1 Corporation tax at 20% (100000*0.20)=£20000
    2-Income tax(180000-10000pa)=8000*0.20=£1600
    3-NIC class 1 pre employee 18000-7865*0.12=£1216
    4-NIC class 1 sec employer 18000-7865*0.138=£1398
    5-Dividens 31865*0.10=3186.5
    8135*0.325=2643
    Then you add them up and compare them to self-employed figure and state which one is more beneficial to taxpayer.

    I hope this will give you an idea

    I had a different answer for this question as I had the director’s salary as an allowable deduction from profits and also included the employer’s annual exemption for class 1 secondary of £2,000.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 25 posts - 101 through 125 (of 134 total)
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  • The topic ‘*** F6 June 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***’ is closed to new replies.

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