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F2 doubt

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › F2 doubt

  • This topic has 9 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 23, 2013 at 2:25 pm #143455
    csacct1
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Hi, i have tried for hours this question and i have no clue about it. hope someone can give me some idea on how to do it. Thank you https://oi44.tinypic.com/21ez12c.jpg

    October 23, 2013 at 3:00 pm #143459
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The normal loss is 500 (5% x 10000), and since the actual loss is 420 there is an abnormal gain of 80 units.
    Also, the actual finished units are 9580.

    Materials are costed over the units we expect to produce, so the cost is 16445 – 200 (expected proceeds from scrap) = 16245.
    The units expected to be finished – actual finished less abnormal gain i.e. 9580 – 80 = 9500 units.
    So cost per unit = 16245 / 9500 = $1.71

    Lab & o/heads: the total cost is 28596, and the equivalent units are 9580 (finished) – 48 (60% x 80 abnormal gain).
    So cost per unit is 28596/9532 = $3 per unit.

    So total cost per finished unit is $4.71

    (Do note that you cannot be asked to write up t-accounts in Paper F2).

    October 23, 2013 at 3:20 pm #143461
    csacct1
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Thank you so much for your help. finally understand it. 🙂

    October 23, 2013 at 3:24 pm #143462
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Great 🙂

    October 24, 2013 at 2:51 am #143497
    csacct1
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    oops sorry, one more question,

    the equivalent units are 9580 (finished) – 48 (60% x 80 abnormal gain).

    does that mean the abnormal gain for labour is 48? why is it 60% of 80?

    October 24, 2013 at 6:03 am #143516
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It was 60% complete for labour when tested and scrapped.

    October 24, 2013 at 2:26 pm #143568
    csacct1
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    oh it means that, thanks again.

    October 25, 2013 at 10:08 am #143645
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    November 12, 2013 at 2:16 pm #145642
    csacct1
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    Hi,https://www.cimaglobal.com/Documents/ImportedDocuments/ci_april_04_p19_20.pdf for absorption costing.

    fixed overhead capacity, isnt it 110-110 x 2.5

    and effiency 105-110 x 2.5

    why cant i get Fixed overhead volume variance £125 ? Thanks in advance

    November 15, 2013 at 12:15 pm #146132
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You should be using the fixed overhead rate per hour (you have used the rate per unit).

    Each unit is 2.50, each unit takes 0.1 hours, so the rate per hour is 2.50/0.1 = $25

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