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When you are given two rates I usually assume the rate to the left is the buy rate and the rate to the right is the sell rate.
When I’m working out a money market hedge and the company are making a payment to creditors I assumed that because the company are buying the currency then the bank would be selling therefore I use the sell rate to the right. Some questions I’ve done from past papers and BPP this had worked out wrong. Am I doing it right and perhaps there is a typo or am I doing it completely wrong?
Thanks
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