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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Example 5 (Page no. 37) – Foreign currency
Sir in the solution to the problem for post acquisition reserves working, the depreciation for excess on Fair Value should be (4000/10*3) = 1200 right?
How did you get 800 as the depreciation??
There are 3 years that is 20X6, 20X7, 20X8.\
So it should be 4000 divided by rem useful life of 10 years multiplied by 3 years giving a dep of 1200.
How did you get 800 as the depreciation?? Solution is in Page number 136 !!
I think you are right. Our apologies.
I will update this next time we revamp the notes.
Steve