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i can not understand the working to determine diluting effect …..because if we had put 8% loan stock earlier than 4% loan stock then both would have had a diluting effect on the eps….but just because we put 4% loan stock before the 8% loan stock become anti dilutive…..so what is the rational behind the sequence???
The global investor wants to know “What is the WORST possible affect on the eps?” and the WORST affect is where the 4% holders convert but the 8% holders don’t
Ok?
You’re welcome – Emmu, if all you wish to say is “thanks” may I ask that you accept that I believe you will say “thanks”! Because otherwise I’m having to go through all your posts again to see if you have a follow-up question.
Of course, if in fact you do have a follow-up question, please continue to post but may I ask that you no longer post simply to say “thanks”
And you know that you are now, and always will be, welcome
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