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in the latest bpp text (page 321) there is a worked example to value a target. i have reproduced the answer that uses FCF and EVA.
year ————0———-1————-2————-3————-4————-5
Invested
Capital——2000——-1600—–1200———800———-400———-0
NOPAT —–0————–88———160——–400———–440———200
Less
change in
invested
capital——-(2000)——400——–400——-400————400——–400
FCF———-(2000)——488——–560——-800———–840———600
DF
WACC 10%—-1———.91———-.83——–.75———–.68———-..62
PV OF
CASHFLOW-(2000)—-444——–463——–601———-574———–373
NPV=454
—————————————————————————————————-
ROIC (%)———————4——–10————–33———-55————50
EVA=(ROIC-WACC) X
BV CAPITAL
INVESTED——————(112)—–0————–280———360———-160
WACC 10%——-1———.91———-.83——–.75———–.68———-..62
PV OF
EVA—————————-(102)——–0———-210———–246———-99
PV=454
pls note that there is no question…they just show this working.
i dont understand where/how they get (112) in the lower working
thanks
I don’t have the BPP text and so I can’t really help you with this.
(I wouldn’t worry too much anyway because EVA is being removed from the P4 syllabus as from September and it is therefore extremely unlikely that it will be asked in June.)
oh!!! and i spent 2 days struggling with it…
thank u !!
You are welcome 🙂
