Good morning professor
Would like to ask a question on asset replacement using Annuity factor in order to calculate the EAC.
Let’s say we buy a machine for $10,000 and this will entail Eur 2000.00 maintenance costs each year.
Now let’s consider the optimum replacement cost happens every two years so
pv = 10,000 * discount factor for yr 0 = 10,000
2000 * discount factor for yr 1 = 2000 * .909 = 1818
2000 * discount factor for yr 2 = 2000 * .826 = 1652
So npv = 10,000+1818+1652 = (13470)
Eac = 13470 / 1.735 = 7763.69
Now my question is if the equivalent annual cost is 7763.69 p.a in present value terms if we multiply 7763.69*1.1 + 7763.69 * 1.1 shouldn’t this come equal to 14,000.00. What am I missing?
On the other hand considering the initial cash flow of 10,000 is occurring in year 0 and therefore discount factor is 1, if we take the annuity by adding 1 to the year 1 discount factor gives
14000 * .826 = 11564 (present value)
11564 / 1.909 = 6057
6057 * 1.1 + 6057 * 1.1= 13991 which is equal to 14000
Don’t know if I have made my point but appreciate if you can explain the logic behind the above.
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
Equivalent annual cost
There is no reason on earth that it should come to 14,000! (Although the total spend is 14,000 over the 2 years, it is spread over the 2 years and therefore there is interest to take into account).
The terminal value of the original flows (the value at the end of time 2) is:
(10,000 x (1.1^2) + (2,000 x 1.1) + 2,000 = 16,300
The EAC is equivalent to paying 7763.69 at time 1 and at time 2.
The terminal value of these is:
(7763.69 x 1.1) + 7763.69 = 16,304 (the difference is solely rounding).
However I have no idea why you should want to do this - it is irrelevant for the exam :-)
Dear John
Thanks for the reply.
I just hate learning rules and was trying to figure the logic out of it. Now it is clear
Thanks for your usual assistance much appreciated :-)
You are welcome :-)
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