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Equivalent annual cost

JJohann10y ago
Good morning professor Would like to ask a question on asset replacement using Annuity factor in order to calculate the EAC. Let’s say we buy a machine for $10,000 and this will entail Eur 2000.00 maintenance costs each year. Now let’s consider the optimum replacement cost happens every two years so pv = 10,000 * discount factor for yr 0 = 10,000 2000 * discount factor for yr 1 = 2000 * .909 = 1818 2000 * discount factor for yr 2 = 2000 * .826 = 1652 So npv = 10,000+1818+1652 = (13470) Eac = 13470 / 1.735 = 7763.69 Now my question is if the equivalent annual cost is 7763.69 p.a in present value terms if we multiply 7763.69*1.1 + 7763.69 * 1.1 shouldn’t this come equal to 14,000.00. What am I missing? On the other hand considering the initial cash flow of 10,000 is occurring in year 0 and therefore discount factor is 1, if we take the annuity by adding 1 to the year 1 discount factor gives 14000 * .826 = 11564 (present value) 11564 / 1.909 = 6057 6057 * 1.1 + 6057 * 1.1= 13991 which is equal to 14000 Don’t know if I have made my point but appreciate if you can explain the logic behind the above.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#1
There is no reason on earth that it should come to 14,000! (Although the total spend is 14,000 over the 2 years, it is spread over the 2 years and therefore there is interest to take into account). The terminal value of the original flows (the value at the end of time 2) is: (10,000 x (1.1^2) + (2,000 x 1.1) + 2,000 = 16,300 The EAC is equivalent to paying 7763.69 at time 1 and at time 2. The terminal value of these is: (7763.69 x 1.1) + 7763.69 = 16,304 (the difference is solely rounding). However I have no idea why you should want to do this - it is irrelevant for the exam :-)
JJohann10y ago#2
Dear John Thanks for the reply. I just hate learning rules and was trying to figure the logic out of it. Now it is clear Thanks for your usual assistance much appreciated :-)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#3
You are welcome :-)
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