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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › EPS Calculation
Dear Mike,
I see that you responded to Durdana’s query below,
I do not understand why you calculate 2 lines:
1 January 1,000,000*6/5*3/12=300,000
1 April 1,200,000*6/5*4/12=480,000
6/5, please explain?
Thanks
Hello dear tutor.
I have question regarding EPS calculation. (Kaplan)
An entity had 1 million shares in issue on 1 January 20X1. They issued 200,000 shares at market value on 1 April, followed by a 1 for 5 bonus issue on 1 August, with a further 300,000 issued at market value on 1 October.
If profit for the year ending 31 December 20X1 is $220,000, what is the basic earnings per share?
Answer is:
1 January 1,000,000*6/5*3/12=300,000
1 April 1,200,000*6/5*4/12=480,000
1 August 1,440,000* 2/12=240,000
1October 1,740,000*3/12=435,000
–––––––
Number of shares in EPS calculation 1,455,000
–––––––
The earnings per share for 20X1 would now be calculated as:
Original number 1,200,000
New issue (1 for 5) 240,000
–––––––––
New number 1,440,000
$220,000
–––––––––– = 15.1c
1,455,000
But I calculated like this:
1m*6/5*3/12=0.3m
1.2m*6/5*4/12=0.48m
1.2m*2/12=0.2m
1.5m*3/12=0.375 m
and bonus issue 1.2m/5=0.24m
total number of shares – 300 000+680 000+375 000+240 000=1 595 000 shares
I don’t understand these calculations:
1 August 1,440,000* 2/12=240,000
1October 1,740,000*3/12=435,000
Time apportionment is applied to bonus issue. Why?
Thank you in advance for your help
Candy, I’m really sorry to have to ask this of you but have you read the free course notes on EPS and particularly the bottom half of page 121?
The whole chapter is worth looking at but that half page fully explains why we have to multiply those two periods by 6/5
Read that chapter and then come back to me if you feel the need
OK?
