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ennea 6/12

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › ennea 6/12

  • This topic has 5 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 22, 2015 at 7:41 am #247854
    aishaasad
    Member
    • Topics: 159
    • Replies: 185
    • ☆☆☆

    hi Sir ,
    how the gearing ratios are calculated in part a?

    May 22, 2015 at 11:02 am #247909
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The examiner does write that he has calculated it as long-term debt / equity. However, as he also writes (in italics below the answer), you could calculate it as long-term debt / (debt + equity), which is also a valid way of measuring gearing.

    So using the measure that he has used, the current gearing is 140,000 / 171,000 = 81.9%
    Its the same approach for each proposal.

    November 5, 2015 at 2:03 am #280554
    wlta
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 27
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    In this particular question of Ennea, I cannot get how they get the current asset value and retained earning value for 3 proposals.

    Can kindly explain me.

    Thanks a lot.

    November 6, 2015 at 3:56 pm #280840
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You need to look at the workings for the current earnings and the earnings for the new proposals.

    The current retained earnings will include the current earnings for this year of 23,000, so for the proposals you need to subtract the 23,000 and instead add on the forecast earnings for the year.

    August 12, 2016 at 5:56 pm #332884
    kakahh
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 42
    • ☆☆

    Hi John, I have some questions on this as well.

    For proposal 1 – the interest payable is 20m x 0.06 x 0.8 = 0.96

    When I look of the double entry

    Interest Expense 1.2m
    Interest Payable/Cash 1.2m

    Tax Expense 0.24m
    Tax Payable/Cash 0.24m

    So the shouldn’t interest payable be 20m x 0.06 x 1.2 = 1.44 instead of 0.96?

    I don’t know whats wrong with my thinking..

    August 13, 2016 at 7:03 am #332913
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Paying more interest means lower taxable profit and therefore less tax payable (not more tax).

    So the net effect of paying more interest on the profit after tax is 1.2m – 0.24m = 0.96m

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Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • The topic ‘ennea 6/12’ is closed to new replies.

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