Economic risk

Please correct me If I am wrong anywhere! Sir, there is an example (in Kaplan text) which says: [Question] A US exporter sells one product in Europe on a cost plus basis. The selling price is based on a US price of $16 to cover costs & provide a profit margin. The current exchange rate is €1.26 = $1 What would be the effect on the exporter's business if the dollar strengthened to €1.31 = $1? [Answer] Kaplan has provided the answer for which I have no clue about what it is saying so I asked you instead. Since the seller invoice in Local Currency ($) so the seller is not affected by the changes in Foreign Exchange rate risk. We can see that Foreign Currency (€) has depreciated over the period which means that Foreign Customer is affected & he has to pay more €'s now. BUT as you can see Foreign Currency has depreciated which means we have strengthened in our Local Currency ($) then why do we not get received more in $'s (since we sell goods to the customer)? I thought foreign exchange has two-sided effect (one is on the customer & the other is on the seller)? Confused here and Need your help! Thank you :)