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DVM

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › DVM

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • September 6, 2016 at 5:34 pm #338371
    dansindo
    Member
    • Topics: 24
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    Option 1
    GXG co. could suspend dividends for two years, and then pay dividends of 25 cents per share from the end of the third year, increasing dividends annually by 4% per year in subsequent years. Dividends in recent years have grown by 3% per year.

    Recent financial information relating to GXG co is as follows:
    Dividends $1,600,000
    Ordinary shares (nominal value 50 cents) $5,000,000

    a) Using the dividend valuation model, calculate the value of GXG Co under option 1, and advise whether option 1 will be acceptable to shareholders.

    Sir please help me solve this question. Thanks!

    September 6, 2016 at 5:43 pm #338379
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Under option 1 the dividend will be 25c per share which will be 2.5M in total

    Using the formula, if we are wanting the market value now, we use Do(1+g) as the numerator. Do(1+g) is the dividend in 1 years time.

    Here, he has used the formula to calculate the market value in 2 years time (because the first dividend is in 3 years time), and so the dividend 1 year later is 2.5M (not 2.5M x (1+g))
    He has then discounted by 2 years to get back to a market value now.

    September 6, 2016 at 6:32 pm #338393
    dansindo
    Member
    • Topics: 24
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    can u explain to me again why (2.5x(1+g)) is not used?

    September 7, 2016 at 6:11 am #338471
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because Do(1+g) is the dividend in 1 years time.

    If we are at time 2 then the dividend one year later is already the dividend in 3 years time (i.e. one year later). So we don’t need to multiply by 1+g

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