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DVM

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › DVM

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • June 3, 2015 at 1:01 pm #252452
    Sam123456789
    Member
    • Topics: 18
    • Replies: 460
    • ☆☆☆

    Hey

    In June 2012 Q4 part B

    The figures were discounted back to P0.

    In June 13 Q4 part A

    Figures are not discounted back? Seem abit strange.

    And also the formula
    P0(1+g) ÷ Ke-g

    Are both g representing he same growth? Ie future or are the different.

    Please advice.

    I get the 2013 one. But the 2012 one is confusing.

    Thanks in advance

    June 3, 2015 at 3:16 pm #252492
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The dividend valuation formula gives the market value assuming that the dividends are growing from time 1 onwards. If the dividend growth starts later then the value for the formula starts later and needs discount back.

    In June 13 Q4 the examiners answer calculates the value twice. Once assuming that the do not do option 1 and therefore the dividend continues growing at 3% a year, and the second assuming they did do option 1 – in that case the dividend will grow at 4% per year and also needed discounting back for 2 year because it started late.
    (He needed to do both to be able to answer the question, which wanted you to advise whether it would be acceptable to shareholders)

    In June 13 Q4 you only needed to do it once because there was nothing else to consider, and you say you are happy with the discounting back in that question.

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