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DVM 2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › DVM 2

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • May 30, 2015 at 6:30 pm #250718
    aryan002
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    A company has 4m shares in issue with anominal value of $0.50 per share.A dividend of 24 cents per share has just been paid.Four years ago the dividend was 20.51 cents per share.The beta of shares in the company is 0.5.The risk free rate is 3% and the market premium is 8%.What is the market captalisation of the company?
    ans is $33280000 how?

    May 31, 2015 at 10:01 am #250852
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I really do suggest that you watch the free lectures!!

    You use the dividend growth formula from the formula sheet.

    the dividend growth rate = g = (fourth root of (24/20.51)) – 1 = 0.04 (4%)

    From the CAPM formula, Re = 3% + 4% = 7%

    Therefore using the value, the market value per share = (24 x 1.04) / (0.07 – 0.04) = 832c (or $8.32 per share).

    Multiply by the number of shares and you have the answer.

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