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Sir, I have two questions regarding this part of the exam;
1. Why are we calculating the firm value using perpetuity method instead of a simple PV method?
2. Why are we deducting the TAD after PBIT? From my understanding, the depreciation should be adjusted right after PBIT, by adding it back, since it is a non-cash flow item. Please correct my understanding or add any information that I missed out during the lecture.Thank you!
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