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Doric Co. December 2010 Question 01

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › Doric Co. December 2010 Question 01

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • November 21, 2014 at 9:20 am #211810
    senomi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    hi sir

    in the question Doric Co. (december 2010 q1) part (b) says to calculate the income position for which we need to calculate the tax allowable depreciation.

    for this the marking scheme answer takes the old balance sheet NCA values instead of the revalued amounts for non current assets.
    why?

    thanks so much

    November 21, 2014 at 1:17 pm #211909
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because the tax people use depreciation based on the original cost (not the revalued amount).

    (Otherwise everyone would try and save tax by revaluing and then charging higher depreciation and getting a lower taxable profit 🙂 )

    November 21, 2014 at 4:03 pm #211983
    senomi
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    thanks so much sir!!!!

    🙂

    November 22, 2014 at 10:12 am #212119
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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