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DORIC CO

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › DORIC CO

  • This topic has 8 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 18, 2020 at 7:06 am #595384
    akhila.vijay93
    Participant
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 43
    • ☆☆

    Dear Tutor,
    Can you please explain the depreciation calculation of the question?
    Depreciation = ((1/3*$100+$50)*10%) = $8.3

    I don’t understand how/why we used the realisable value of the non current assets to calculate the depreciation?
    Isn’t that amount already realised and used to fund the buyout?

    November 18, 2020 at 10:11 am #595412
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You will have to tell me which bit of the examiners answer you are referring to, because I cannot see depreciation of $8.3 anywhere in the answer.

    Also, the equation you have written does not come to $8.3 (and the TAD in the question is 15% not 10%).

    January 24, 2021 at 8:54 am #607725
    lynette2010
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    1. I didn’t understand for proposal 1, the total realisable value of assets not sold as going concern was used in calculating the return. Is the total realisable value referring to Realisable value of the total assets?

    2) qn(i) return of the debt holders, Ans: Debt holders only receive 55·7c for every $1 invested and the shareholders receive nothing (see appendix, proposal 1).
    Can my answer:
    Payables 39 (70/260×156)
    Bank overdraft 33 (33/260×156)
    Unsecured loan stock 67 (120/260×156)
    Other unsecured loan 17 (30/260×156)

    January 24, 2021 at 10:52 am #607755
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    1. If they cease trading and close down entirely, then nothing is being sold as a going concern!
    The total realisable value is the realisable value of all the assets.

    2. You could get the answer the way that you are setting out (except that in each case you should be dividing by 280 not 250, and the bank overdraft should be 60/280 and not 33).
    However what on earth would be the point? They sell all of the assets and receive 156, and this is shares between all the liabilities of 280.

    March 1, 2021 at 5:33 pm #612413
    losercase
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    why aren’t we deducting the 50 as investment in new assets.. if we were to do fcfe we would have deducted that… and we wouldnt have positive cash flow.. why are we doing p and l here ?

    March 2, 2021 at 7:22 am #612519
    losercase
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    please answer sir 🙂 I am confuseddd
    thank you

    March 2, 2021 at 9:38 am #612566
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t understand your reason for the second post. We say we will answer questions within 24 hours, which I always do – we do not sit permanently in front of the computer because we do have jobs to go to!! 🙂

    With regard to your first post, I assume you are referring to the management buy out proposal. The question is not asking you to appraise whether the investment is worthwhile or not. The question is asking for the value of the company, and the value is the PV of the future receipts.

    March 2, 2021 at 1:45 pm #612671
    losercase
    Member
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    I am extremely sorry. Have a good day and thank you for doing so much for us

    March 2, 2021 at 4:34 pm #612721
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54656
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No problem, and thank you for your comment 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
  • The topic ‘DORIC CO’ is closed to new replies.

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