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Some reference materials state that dividend valuation model is only suitable for minority shareholding. How do we justify this…?
Majority shareholdings are in a position to determine the level of dividend (and hence the dividend growth rate). Minority shareholdings have to accept the current policy.
Hi all,
Wish to verify the following…:-
(a) For the dividend element (D1) should we take the dividend paid or declared, or both…?
(b) For the cum div share price, should we minus out dividend paid or declared, or both…?
Thanx…~
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