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Disposal of subsiduary

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Disposal of subsiduary

  • This topic has 11 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
Viewing 12 posts - 1 through 12 (of 12 total)
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  • December 7, 2010 at 1:23 pm #46726
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Proforma for disposal of subsiduary in BPP Study textbook is the following
    Fair value of consideration received……………….X
    Fair value of investment retained………………….X

    Less
    Net assets at date of disposal %…………….(X)
    Goodwill……………………………………….(X)
    Gain/Loss………………………………………..X
    The question is
    In Q1 of December 2009 , the following information is given
    On 30 June 2008, Grange had acquired a 100% interest in Sitin, a public limited company, for a cash consideration
    of $39 million. Sitin’s identifi able net assets were fair valued at $32 million.
    On 30 November 2009, Grange disposed of 60% of the equity of Sitin when its identifi able net assets were
    $36 million. Of the increase in net assets, $3 million had been reported in profi t or loss and $1 million had been
    reported in comprehensive income as profi t on an available-for-sale asset. The sale proceeds were $23 million
    and the remaining equity interest was fair valued at $13 million. Grange could still exert signifi cant infl uence after
    the disposal of the interest. The only accounting entry made in Grange’s fi nancial statements was to increase cash
    and reduce the cost of the investment in Sitin.

    In answers net assets at date of disposal is taken for 100 % instead of 60 %, is it the right solution?? If yes in which cases we should take 100% of net assets and in which case only our share?
    Thanx

    December 7, 2010 at 3:23 pm #73263
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, it is correct. If you look at the start of your workings, you’ll see the amount received for 60% plus the fair value of the remaining 40%. Therefore, you have the “value” of 100% and that’s why you now compare with 100% of the value of the subsidiary.

    The situations where you only look at the 5age disposed of is when we are not selling a subsidiary ( as we are in this case – selling it down to become an associate ). So, for example, if we were selling a quarter of our 80% holding, we still have a 60% subsidiary. when calculating “adjustment to parent’s equity” we consider one quarter of the goodwill disposed of and 20% of the value of the assets at date of disposal

    December 7, 2010 at 3:36 pm #73264
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Thanx,
    but on BPP study textbook chapter 14 changes in group structures, page 335 they have taken only share of the parent, not 100 %

    December 7, 2010 at 3:40 pm #73265
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Are you sure this is not a part disposal where we are still left with a subsidiary?

    December 7, 2010 at 3:45 pm #73266
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Here what is written in the book “Partial disposal: subsiduary to associate (80% – 40%)”, I think by saying partial here, they mean not full disposal, like subsiduary to nothing.

    December 7, 2010 at 3:48 pm #73267
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    take the value of the disposal + the value of the remaining holding. Compare with 80% of the total fair valued assets at date of disposal and that should give you profit. take off the whole of our goodwill and that gives you net profit on disposal of subsidiary. In addition, it gives you value of associate as at the date it became an associate

    December 7, 2010 at 4:04 pm #73268
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    for example company A owns 70 % shares of company B, than it sells 50 % for a cash 300,000, and fair value of associate or AFSF is supposed to be 50,000.
    We got 300,000 cash for 50 % and fair value of investment retained is 20 %, therefore while calculating group’s gain we shoud do following
    Cash received 300,000
    Investment retained 50,000
    less 70% of net assets not 100 %
    less goodwill

    Have I understood right???

    December 8, 2010 at 12:18 am #73269
    karimsellim
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    kindly i want to ask
    Is the net assets of the disposed subsidiary that i must include in the proforma for calculation the group disposal gain or loss from the subsidiary disposal,is is

    Net assets of the subsidiary at disposal date? OR

    (Net assets of the subsidiary at disposal date)*(Parent’s share portion % in the subsidiary before the disposal)?

    December 8, 2010 at 2:09 pm #73270
    karimsellim
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    Is the above proforma right?

    December 8, 2010 at 2:19 pm #73271
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi Gagik

    yes, the proforma appears to be correct – why not check it against the proforma in the course notes. Were I not up to my ears in replying to OT questions, I would look it up myself!

    Karim, it’s “net assets * parent’s share”

    December 8, 2010 at 5:31 pm #73272
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Hi Mike
    I think I have already understood, I have once more watched your lectures(by the way great lectures) and now everything is OK,
    thanx a lot

    December 11, 2010 at 9:01 pm #73273
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear Mike,
    could you please clarify in case of disposal of subsidiary without loss of control proforma is as follows:
    1) Sales proceeds X
    Share of net assets disposed of: (x)
    or
    2) Sales proceeds X
    Share of net assets + goodwill disposed of: (x)

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