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why they have calculated profit just by taking whole carring amount why they didn’t do 12*15/60?
It is not clear from video.
As stated previously please give sufficient detail so that I and other students for not have to read or research the question Please use your own words to summarise the issue. Otherwise, posts may be deleted.
In this Q the investment is being equity accounted (cost plus share of profits) for in the separate FS of the parent. After the disposal this would no longer be appropriate.
So, the profit on sale is CASH plus FV OF REMAINING SHARES minus CA OF OLD INVESTMENT>
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