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  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 3, 2022 at 9:43 am #665002
    deftoneseire07
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    I cant seem to get the right answer for this current mock exam I just did.
    10% Cost Capital,NPV includes Residual Value of 20000,NPV = 55

    Cash Flows Year 1 130
    Year 2 130
    Year 3 130
    Year 4 130
    Year 5 150

    I am getting 4.41 but answer is 4.47
    I looked at your youtube video but does not include NPV + Residual Value???
    So dont know how to treat these??? ACCA just seem to love to throw these things into the mix
    Thanks

    September 4, 2022 at 7:42 am #665071
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The residual value is discounted in the normal way depending on when it occurs.

    October 8, 2022 at 9:59 am #668118
    deftoneseire07
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Hi John still a bit confused as to how to get 4.47 years.This is my working

    Year 1 130 x .909 = 118.17
    Year 2 130 x .826 = 107.38
    Year 3 130 x .751 = 97.63
    Year 4 130 x .683 = 88.79 411.97
    Year 5 150 x 0.621 = 93.15

    Inv 450 – 411.97 = 38.03/ Year 5 93.15 = .41 so I am getting 4.41??

    Where is the other 0.06 coming from??

    October 8, 2022 at 2:40 pm #668121
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because you have discounted each of the 130 per year individually rather than using the annuity factor (which would have been faster). As I explain in the lectures, that creates a rounding problem because the tables only go to three decimal places.

    That will not be a problem in the exam because the computer will either allow more than one answer or will ask for an answer rounded to (for example) the nearest thousand.

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