I understand the equation is the same as that for receivables but i dont get what the decision rule is.
For receivables, since the effective rate is the cost of giving the discount, it should only be offered if its cheaper than financing through the overdraft.
So how is it for payables?
i'm really confused...
For receivables, since the effective rate is the cost of giving the discount, it should only be offered if its cheaper than financing through the overdraft.
So how is it for payables?
i'm really confused...
