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Hi
Would we classify redundancy costs and reorganisation costs as part of discontinued operations?
Also Shaheen Plc has net profit attributable to ordinary shareholders of $2250000 for the year ended 30 June 2006. Shaheen has had 7 million $1 ordinary shares in issue for many years. During the current year on 1st April 2006 Shaheen made a rights issue of 2 shares for every 5 held . The rights issue offer price was $2.75 and the share price on the prior day was $4.50.
How would the working for this be? I know we have to do a table but a bit confused with the 7 million shares?
Thanks
Redundancy costs ….. yes
Reorganisation costs ……no\\redundancy is final and clearly associated with the closure / discontinued operation
Reorganisation is related to the continuing business and therefore not a part of the discontinuance
The rights fraction calculation table is as follows, but you’ll probably have to excuse the alignment!
Number Value $
5 4.50 22.50
2 2.75 5.507 B 4.00 28.00
ie you now have 7 shares with an aggregate value of $28.00 so theoretical value of each share is $4 and the rights fraction is 4.5 / 4
Can you go on from there?
So would I have as follows:
Earnings / old shares x 4.5/4 x 9/12 then add number of shares after which is still 7 million x 3/12 x 7/5?
No! Or maybe, Yes!
Are you happy with the rights fraction of 4.5 / 4?
Now, the table to calculate the weighted average number of equity shares goes as follows and again you’re going to have to excuse the alignment!
Date number period fraction Wanes
1. 07.x5 7,000,000 9/12 4.5/4 5,906,250
1. 04.x6 9,800,000 3/12 – 2,450,000So weighted average number is (5,906,250 + 2,450,000) 8,356,250 and earnings are $2,250,000 so eps is 26.9 cents (check my calcs – I did them without calculator!)
Ok I get the same 🙂 thanks
P purchased S on 1/7/05 y/e 31/12/05 they have below:
P. S
Rev. 3500. 1000
Cos. (2800). (800)
GP. 700. 200In the year P sold goods to S for $2 million which were made evenly throughout the year. 20% of these goods remain in year end inventory – all of which we’re sold after 1/7. These goods were all sold at mark up of 25%. How would I work out the figure for the P group consolidated COS fit the year please?
I know they have only purchased part way through 6 months?
Thanks
Pup in P is 2m x 25/125 x 20% = 80,000
So pup in P retained earnings is (80,000)
Group revenue should be decreased by 6/12 x 2m
Group cosales should be decreased by 6/12 x 2m
Group cosales should be increased by 80,000
Revenue is therefore 3,500 + (1/2*1,000) – 1,000 = 3,000
Cosales is 2,800 + (1/2*800) – 1,000 + .08 = 2,280
GP = 720OK?
It only gives you a chose of;
A. $1680000
B. $1760000
C. $2680000
D. $2760000?????
Strange! If S has bought $2m from P during the year, how come the S cost of sales is only $800?
Unless there’s something you’re not telling me, or you’ve given me a wrong date or amount, I can’t see why my answer is incorrect.
What is the correct answer per the printed solution?
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