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Is idle time still included in calculating for the direct labour rate variance? Or I’m going to deduct the idle time first from the number of labour hours before multiplying it by the rate/hour?
For the rate variance we take the hours actually paid (which includes the idle hours).
I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this, where I explain with examples.
The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F2 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
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