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Diluted EPS

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Diluted EPS

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 1, 2017 at 10:20 am #404827
    hollyqian
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Hi Mike,
    When the question has convertible bonds, example 5 in page 121, conversion terms included 18 equity share on 31 Dec 2012 and 30 equity share on 31 Dec 2014, under what circumstance to use 18 equity or 30 equity. Is it always use the higher one? What is the logic behind?

    September 1, 2017 at 3:56 pm #404880
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The logic is this … the idea behind the calculation and disclosure of diluted eps is to show the global investor what is the WORST position that could face the shareholders of the future …

    … and the WORST position is the one that results in the greatest number of new shares on conversion because they increase the denominator and thus reduce the earnings per share (because there are more shares)

    OK?

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  • The topic ‘Diluted EPS’ is closed to new replies.

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