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Difference

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Difference

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • January 9, 2017 at 9:11 am #365764
    sawyunandar
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    What does 90% mean in the labour efficiency variance answer of this question?

    Question
    XYZ Co is planning to make 120,000 units per period of a new product. The following standards have been set.
    Per unit
    Direct material A 1.2 kg at $11 per kg
    Direct material B 4.7 kg at $6 per kg
    Direct labour:
    Operation 1 42 minutes
    Operation 2 37 minutes
    Operation 3 11 minutes

    Overheads are absorbed at the rate of $30 per labour hour. All direct operatives are paid at the rate of $8 per hour. Attainable work hours are less than clock hours, so the 500 direct operatives have been budgeted for 400 hours each in the period.
    Actual results for the period were:
    Production 126,000 units
    Direct labour cost $1.7m for 215,000 clock hours
    Material A cost $1.65m for 150,000 kg
    Material B cost $3.6m for 590,000 kg

    Answer
    Labour efficiency variance
    126,000 units should take (x 1.5 hrs) 189,000 hrs
    but did take (215,000 hrs x 90%) 193,500 hrs
    4,500 hrs (A)
    Standard rate per hour x $8
    $36,000 (A)

    January 9, 2017 at 4:36 pm #365820
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The total standard time is 42 + 37 + 11 = 90 minutes, which is 1.5 hours per unit.
    So the budgeted paid hours were 120,000 x 1.5 = 180,000 hours.

    But the budgeted actual hours are 500 employees x 400 working hours = 200,000 hours.

    So the working hours are budgeted as 180,000/200,000 = 90% of the paid hours.

    So since they actually for paid for 215,000 hours, we would have expected them to be working for 90% x 215,000 hours.

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    Posts
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