Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Degearing and Regearing using M+M’s proposition 2 equation
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 14, 2014 at 3:48 pm #210011
Dear John Sir,
Kindly help me understand this question from Kaplan study text.
I am unable to understand how degearing and regearing is done in the below mentioned question. Although, I have mentioned the published answer as well but i am unable to understand how he get the ke of 10.8%.
I fail to understand the rearranging ……
Sir, please can you explain me in an easy steps. I will be very grateful.
Question:
Moondog Co is a company with a 20:80 debt:quality ratio. Using CAPM, its cost of equity has been calculated as 12%.
It is considering raising some debt finance to change its gearing ratio to 25:75 debt to equity. The expected return to debt holders is 4% per annum, and the rate of corporate tax is 30%REQUIRED
Calculate the theoretical cost of equity in Moondog Co after the refinancing.
ANSWER
Using M+M’s proposition 2 equation, we can degear the existing ke and then regear it to the new gearing levelDEGEARING
Ke=kei+(1-T)(kei-kd)(Vd/Ve)
12%=kei+(1-0.30)(kei-4%)(20/80)Rearranging carefully gives ke=10.8%
NOW REGEARING
Ke=10.8%+(1-0.30)(10.8%-4%)(25/75)
Ke=12.4%November 15, 2014 at 11:34 am #210168I assume that you are happy with the equation before solving,
i.e. 12% = kei + (1-0.30)(kei – 4%)(20/80)This simplifies to:
0.12 = kei + 0.70 (kei – 0.04) 0.25
0.12 = kei + 0.175 (kei – 0.04)
0.12 = kei + 0.175 kei – 0.007
0.127 = 1.175 kei
kei = 0.127 / 1.175 = 0.108 (or 10.8%)
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