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question 4b)
normally when we claculated capital employed,the formula is TA-CL or equity+ NCL,but why in this question,the capital employed in 2014 add the bank overdraft?Why there is no loss tax relief on interest minus from the operating profit (25%×168)?
Why the non cash expenses did not add back in the operating profit and the capital employed?
I don’t know why you are attempting this question, because EVA is no longer in the syllabus for Paper P4.
(You really should be using a current edition of a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA approved publishers because they contain only the past exam questions that are still relevant.)
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