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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › december 2014 q 1
Cum-div=ex-div+about to be paid=3.7107=3.10+0.6107
then we deduct 0.21 from 3.7107 which is 5.50$
here is 3.10$ is ex div and about to be paid is 3.10*0.197=0.6107
about to be paid is future pay-0.6107
has just paid is past pay-0.21
my question here is that why we deduct past oay from cum-div to get current share price?it should be past share price not current smth seems to be confusing
thanks in advance
Please do not post the same question twice – I have answered your other post of this question.
