Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › dec10 mock exam qn 1
- This topic has 12 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
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- December 3, 2010 at 10:16 am #46553
can anyone tell me how to get the df for 21%. i forgot. pls help
December 3, 2010 at 1:31 pm #72451AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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It is a calculator thing
first calculate (1+g)^N
then 1/ (ANS) on calculator.example if g=6% N= 2yrs
calculate: (1.06)^2 = 1.1236
now ; 1/ 1.1236 =0.890 is the discount factor
December 3, 2010 at 1:53 pm #72452tks. how did u get the 6 % ?
December 3, 2010 at 2:07 pm #72453AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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To get g :
D1= D0(1+g)^N
make g the subject(D1/D0) = Ans
: N-Square root of Ansthen ; 1-Ans
where D1 = is the current dividend
D0 = Oldest Dividend
N= Number of yrs
1 = ConstantExample: Current or Ex-dividend =23cent
Dividend in the last 2 yrs =20 cent
Number of yr =2yrsCal: 23/20= 1.15
2 Square root of 1.15 =1.0723
therefore: 1.0723-1 =0.723g=0.723*100 =7.23%
December 3, 2010 at 2:17 pm #72454ookie. tks man ! i jus got it . you r great man. tks a lot. 😉
December 3, 2010 at 2:38 pm #72455hey i jus found the fastest ans to my qn.
PV = 1/(1+r)^n
r is the disc rate and n is the year (T)
so in qn 1 of mock exam we calculated wacc has 21%
use this for NPV cal for b
DF 21% eg year 2 is 1/(1.21)^2 = 0.683 and so on jus change the n accordingly.hope ok. tks
December 3, 2010 at 5:43 pm #72456AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Nice… goo work
December 3, 2010 at 6:20 pm #72457Hi,
Im stuck on a question where I ahve to use Miller-Orr Model, has anyone else same problem when using calculator??
December 3, 2010 at 11:53 pm #72458AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Check out the solution and question about Miller Orr Model on open tuition video… the question will be always put like that ….
What you need to remember is that ..
interest and variance must be computed per day ,Variance = standard Deviation squared
ie : V= (SD)^2that is all about MOM … the formula is given in the exams except computing the upper limit … you can get the info on the Open tuition video on MOM
December 4, 2010 at 8:59 pm #72459Thanks v much, thats been a great help!! Cheers!
December 4, 2010 at 9:22 pm #72460AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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You are welcome ……………… all the best to us all this Thursday ….
December 6, 2010 at 6:49 am #72461Hi,
In the same question 1, do we assuming that the bonds are being redeemed at a premium to calculate the ‘Kd’ ? .. If they mentioned it in the question i don’t think i see it 🙁
December 6, 2010 at 11:17 am #72462AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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When computing for bond you must know that the current bond is used in computing the Market Value;
That is Market Value = current value
Bond face value( $100)you only calculate the future value when the you are ask to find Kd
Note : that Finance Company would always choose the best of the two .that is if future value (FV) is greater that $100 bond ..then they would use that and add the interest (IA) (interest * annuity factor) would give you the future value…..the premium is the difference between the FV (that is FV +IA) less ($100 +AI)
note that the FV and $100 must be discounted .
Example:
A 2 Million bond at 9% ( nominal value of $100) has a current market value of $105 . in 7 yr time the the company would issue the bond out for 40 share per $100 bond .NB current share prices is $5.6 per share growing at 5% per annum .
calculate the :
1 . Market value of the bond.
2. the future value per bond
3. Premium per bond issued .
Solution
1. Market value
= 2m *105/100
=21002. Future Value
= (5.6 *1.05) ^7 = 7.88 (share price in 7yrs)
= 40 * 7.88
=$315.2 @ discount of 0.547 (9% for 7yrs) = $172.41
interest on bond = 9* 5.033 = 45.297
Future value per bond is = 172.41 + 45.30 =217.713. Premium per bond.
= FV per bond less Nominal value per bondso Nominal value (floor value) ( $100 * 0.547) + (9 *5.033) =99.997
:.
= 217.71 -99.997 = $117.71Premium = $117.71
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