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dec10 mock exam qn 1

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › dec10 mock exam qn 1

  • This topic has 12 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
Viewing 13 posts - 1 through 13 (of 13 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 3, 2010 at 10:16 am #46553
    sunflowerdragon
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    can anyone tell me how to get the df for 21%. i forgot. pls help

    December 3, 2010 at 1:31 pm #72451
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    It is a calculator thing

    first calculate (1+g)^N
    then 1/ (ANS) on calculator.

    example if g=6% N= 2yrs

    calculate: (1.06)^2 = 1.1236

    now ; 1/ 1.1236 =0.890 is the discount factor

    December 3, 2010 at 1:53 pm #72452
    sunflowerdragon
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    tks. how did u get the 6 % ?

    December 3, 2010 at 2:07 pm #72453
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    To get g :

    D1= D0(1+g)^N
    make g the subject

    (D1/D0) = Ans
    : N-Square root of Ans

    then ; 1-Ans
    where D1 = is the current dividend
    D0 = Oldest Dividend
    N= Number of yrs
    1 = Constant

    Example: Current or Ex-dividend =23cent
    Dividend in the last 2 yrs =20 cent
    Number of yr =2yrs

    Cal: 23/20= 1.15
    2 Square root of 1.15 =1.0723
    therefore: 1.0723-1 =0.723

    g=0.723*100 =7.23%

    December 3, 2010 at 2:17 pm #72454
    sunflowerdragon
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    ookie. tks man ! i jus got it . you r great man. tks a lot. 😉

    December 3, 2010 at 2:38 pm #72455
    sunflowerdragon
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    hey i jus found the fastest ans to my qn.

    PV = 1/(1+r)^n

    r is the disc rate and n is the year (T)

    so in qn 1 of mock exam we calculated wacc has 21%
    use this for NPV cal for b
    DF 21% eg year 2 is 1/(1.21)^2 = 0.683 and so on jus change the n accordingly.

    hope ok. tks

    December 3, 2010 at 5:43 pm #72456
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    Nice… goo work

    December 3, 2010 at 6:20 pm #72457
    unag
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 26
    • ☆

    Hi,

    Im stuck on a question where I ahve to use Miller-Orr Model, has anyone else same problem when using calculator??

    December 3, 2010 at 11:53 pm #72458
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    Check out the solution and question about Miller Orr Model on open tuition video… the question will be always put like that ….

    What you need to remember is that ..
    interest and variance must be computed per day ,

    Variance = standard Deviation squared
    ie : V= (SD)^2

    that is all about MOM … the formula is given in the exams except computing the upper limit … you can get the info on the Open tuition video on MOM

    December 4, 2010 at 8:59 pm #72459
    unag
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 26
    • ☆

    Thanks v much, thats been a great help!! Cheers!

    December 4, 2010 at 9:22 pm #72460
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    You are welcome ……………… all the best to us all this Thursday ….

    December 6, 2010 at 6:49 am #72461
    vijnas
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Hi,

    In the same question 1, do we assuming that the bonds are being redeemed at a premium to calculate the ‘Kd’ ? .. If they mentioned it in the question i don’t think i see it 🙁

    December 6, 2010 at 11:17 am #72462
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆

    When computing for bond you must know that the current bond is used in computing the Market Value;

    That is Market Value = current value
    Bond face value( $100)

    you only calculate the future value when the you are ask to find Kd
    Note : that Finance Company would always choose the best of the two .that is if future value (FV) is greater that $100 bond ..then they would use that and add the interest (IA) (interest * annuity factor) would give you the future value…..

    the premium is the difference between the FV (that is FV +IA) less ($100 +AI)

    note that the FV and $100 must be discounted .

    Example:
    A 2 Million bond at 9% ( nominal value of $100) has a current market value of $105 . in 7 yr time the the company would issue the bond out for 40 share per $100 bond .

    NB current share prices is $5.6 per share growing at 5% per annum .

    calculate the :
    1 . Market value of the bond.
    2. the future value per bond
    3. Premium per bond issued .
    Solution
    1. Market value
    = 2m *105/100
    =2100

    2. Future Value
    = (5.6 *1.05) ^7 = 7.88 (share price in 7yrs)
    = 40 * 7.88
    =$315.2 @ discount of 0.547 (9% for 7yrs) = $172.41
    interest on bond = 9* 5.033 = 45.297
    Future value per bond is = 172.41 + 45.30 =217.71

    3. Premium per bond.
    = FV per bond less Nominal value per bond

    so Nominal value (floor value) ( $100 * 0.547) + (9 *5.033) =99.997
    :.
    = 217.71 -99.997 = $117.71

    Premium = $117.71

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