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Dec 2012 – Question 2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Dec 2012 – Question 2

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • May 28, 2014 at 4:07 pm #171437
    fascinatingeyez
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Please help me understand why exchange rate has been calculated by examiner in this manner

    Spot rate × (1+(baserate+premium)/3/(1+baserate+premium)/3

    Kindly tell me if there’s any other way of getting to that figure ?

    Moreover this question seems pretty confusing .. can u please guide How I can make it simple for myself to handle this ?

    May 28, 2014 at 4:33 pm #171443
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54704
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is the forward rate that he has calculated that way (not the spot rate).

    Forward rates are determined by the relative interest rates and he has used the interest rate parity formula (from the formula sheet). Dividing my 3 is simply because they were yearly interest rates, but we need the forward rate in 3 months – 1/3 years.

    There is no other way (apart from deriving the interest rate parity formula yourself.

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