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Dec 2012 Q2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Dec 2012 Q2

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 30, 2014 at 2:20 am #171793
    rouri
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    I am going through the answer of Q2 but I don’t how to apply rates when they are expressed as 8.7% basis rates or 2.2% etc.

    also, I am not clear on the computation of the forward rate or why has it been divided by 3?

    Same applies for the premium computation for the option. I know how to compute a premium but in this question the cost has been multiplied by a reinvestment rate (which I don’t know where it was obtained)

    May 30, 2014 at 11:37 am #171878
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t know what you mean by basis rates! Are you meaning basis points? 1 basis point means 0.01%

    Interest rates are always quoted as annual rates. So if you are borrowing/depositing for 4 months, then the actual interest will be 4/12 of the annual interest rate.

    The forward rate is calculated using the interest rate parity formula that is given on the formula sheet.

    There is no mention of a reinvestment rate in either the question or the answer!

    What I think you are talking about is that because the option premium is payable immediately we will either have to borrow money (and therefore pay interest – the borrowing rate) or, if we already have the money, then lose interest that we could otherwise be receiving – the investment or deposit rate. The examiner allowed you to use either rate because it depends on your assumption.

    May 30, 2014 at 11:51 pm #172030
    rouri
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    This is an excerpt from the question
    “The first derivative product is an over-the-counter forward rate determined on the basis of the Zuhait base rate of 8·5% plus 25 basis points and the French base rate of 2·2% less 30 basis points. current spot exchange rate of ZP142 per €1. ”

    This is the answer “Using forward rate
    Forward rate = 142 x (1 + (0·085 + 0·0025)/3)/(1 + (0·022 – 0·0030)/3) = 145·23”

    why do we divide by 3 and why do we divide by the French basis points?

    May 31, 2014 at 9:03 am #172067
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is as exactly as i wrote in my previous answer.

    It is using the interest rate parity formula, so you multiply the spot rate by (1 + zhuhai interest rate) / (1 + French interest rate)

    The Zuhait rate from the question is 8.5 + 0.25 = 8.75%, and the French rate from the question is 2.2% – 0.3% = 1.9%

    These are annual rates, so because we are looking at a period of 4 months, the interest for 4 months is 4/12 of the annual rate. 4/12 = 1/3.

    June 1, 2014 at 7:12 am #172257
    faisal1990
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Is it not true that the interest rates are not the predictor of forward rates? i.e we can not use them to predict the forward rate?

    June 1, 2014 at 8:03 am #172261
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Relative interest rates are what determine forward rates.

    I think that you maybe confusing with future spot rates. It is impossible to predict future spot rates – in the exam, inflation rates are used as the best predictor.

    However forward rates are not a ‘guess’ by the bank – they calculate the forward rate to offer by using interest rates.

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