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dec 2009 uk question 2

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › dec 2009 uk question 2

  • This topic has 4 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 15 years ago by dragon76.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
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  • June 11, 2010 at 11:07 am #44602
    pakoal
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi
    On the amount of revenue that should be deferred ,the service cost is 1,2 m ,and the margin is 40% ,so the amount to be deferred should be 1,2* 140% , I don’t understand why he divided 1.2m by 60%.
    can someone make it clear for me please

    thanx

    June 11, 2010 at 3:12 pm #63886
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 27
    • ☆

    IAS18 (Revenue Recognition): If sales include aftersale servicing & support cost, then a proportion of sales/ revenue should be deferred. The deferred amount should cover costs & reasonable profit of the service.

    In this question, we must deferred revenue of aftersale 2 years.
    + Servicing & support costs of 2 years aftersales: $1.2 x 2 years = $2.4
    –> Which we need to caculate is Revenue deferred (not Costs)
    + Gross profit = 40%
    => Profit/ Sales = 40/100
    => Cost/ Sales = 60/100
    => Sales = (Cost x 100) / 60 = ($2.4 x 100) / 60 = $4m

    Impacts:
    I/S: Sales – 4m
    B/S: Deferred incomes (4m) of 2 next years (2m each year) will be shown in Currrent & Non-current Liabilities (2m for each)

    June 12, 2010 at 8:56 am #63887
    dragon76
    Member
    • Topics: 50
    • Replies: 77
    • ☆☆

    in the same question, we got the 5% convertible loan notes was issued for proceed 20 million on 1 Oct 2007, It has effective interest rate 8%, in normal practice, we should use amortisation method to amortise that mean, the finance cost should be 1648 instead of 1,475 as answer, Can you explain me this??

    June 13, 2010 at 3:31 am #63888
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 27
    • ☆

    We know: Convertible = Option + Redemption
    When working on convertible loan note, pls take note: in TB, option is included or not.
    + If there’s no option–> It means that convertible loan note already included (option + Redemption) Pls work out as normal
    + If there ‘s option –> Then, Redemption = Convertible loan note – Option

    In this question, you can see TB shows Equity Option (2m)
    So, Redemption = 20m (Proceed of convertible loan note) – 2m (Option) = 18m

    Period/ Bal owed at beginning/ Interest charge 8%/ Interest paid 5%/ Bal owed at the end
    01.10.07-30.09.08/ 18 000 / 1440 =(18 000 x 8%) / (1000) =(5% x 20 000) / 18 440
    01.10.08 -30.09.09/ 18 440 / 1475 = (18440 x 8%) / (1000) / 18 915

    You can see above:
    + (01/10/07-30/09/08): Bal owed at the end @ 30.09.08 = 18 440
    This is also the bal owed at the beginning @ 01.10.09 of following period. And it is also the amount given in TB

    + (01/10/08 -30/09/09):
    I/S: Interest charge = 1475
    B/S: Loan note payable at the end of period = 18 915. As it is redeemable in 2012, so it is in Non-current liability.

    June 13, 2010 at 4:42 am #63889
    dragon76
    Member
    • Topics: 50
    • Replies: 77
    • ☆☆

    Hi Trang, It’s really great, but it ‘s the first time I know this very new approach to figure out result like that :). Many thanks

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