Dec 2009 question 1 (b)

https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/pdf/p4_2009_dec_q.pdf that's the link to the question Part (b) reads: Estimate the value of the business based upon the expected free cash flow to equity and a terminal value based upon a sustainable growth rate of 3% per annum thereafter Now all was good in part (a) where we needed to do a 3 year cash flow forecast and at the end of year three, the FCF (e) was 173 so the cash flows from year four would be 173(1.03) multiplied by an appropriate discount rate. This is a growth of 3% in perpetuity and therefore I calculated it as: 1/ (0.10 (the cost of equity) - 0.03) * DF at 10% of the year before i.e year 3 at 0.751. Getting a discount factor to use of 10.73 which multiplied by 173(1.03) to get a value form year four onwards of $1912 but the answer uses the dividend growth model to get the discount rate and they end up with a value of $2546. Why is my method wrong, I thought my method was right to get a growth in perpetuity. Is it because this method needs to be used with the CO WACC - growth rate and I've used it as Ke-growth rate. Is that the reason? So if Kodiak was an equity company would this method work and it's not working here because they have debt too? Thank you.