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Dec 2009 Pandar–SOCI

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › Dec 2009 Pandar–SOCI

  • This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 5, 2012 at 11:40 am #52500
    littlestart
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 59
    • ☆☆

    The answer for the NCI in SOCI = 1800.
    The working (iv) said Salva’s post-acqn profit = 9500. How to get this number?
    Simple question but I am lost.
    Thanks in advance

    May 5, 2012 at 4:35 pm #97139
    nevyana
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 48
    • ☆☆

    For the same question, in the exam answers they say 21,000+2,000 interest and then 23,000/2 = 9,500, but I do not understand why 2,000 is added and then divided by 2. Because the 2 million is interest on the loan 50,000*8%/2 = 2mln and after this the 2 million is divided again by 2.
    If someone can clarify, It would be really helpful.

    May 5, 2012 at 5:19 pm #97140
    Najiya
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 94
    • ☆☆

    https://opentuition.com/groups/f7-financial-reporting/forum/topic/loan-interest-from-sub-to-parent/

    May 6, 2012 at 2:10 pm #97141
    littlestart
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 59
    • ☆☆

    Hi
    Can you explain how you get the NCI in SOCI = 1800 or the number 9500? I am afraid I still can’t get the point.
    Thanks

    May 6, 2012 at 3:03 pm #97142
    Najiya
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 94
    • ☆☆

    NCI post-acq proft is calculated by time-apportioning the year’s profit, with an assumption that all transactions took place evenly throughout the year.
    if that is the case,
    NCI post-acq profit = 21m*(6/12) = 10.5m
    But, in this qn, there is an expense which was incurred in the post-acq period only. This is the interest on loan 8%*5m*(6/12) = 2m.
    This expense should be removed frm the year’s profit before time-apportioning, ie, to say, add back the expense of 2m. This is done so that the post-acq expense is not spread throughout the whole year.
    21m + 2m = 23m. Now time apportion it
    23m *(6/12) = 11.5m. this is the post-acq profit without including the interest expense of 2m. now, we need to subtract the interest expense to get the real post-acq profit. 11.5m – 2m = 9.5m

    hope that make some sense
    plz re-read the previous post. detailed explanation is given there.

    May 6, 2012 at 3:58 pm #97143
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    beautifully explained Najiya 🙂

    May 6, 2012 at 4:39 pm #97144
    Najiya
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 94
    • ☆☆

    Thank you Mike 🙂

    May 6, 2012 at 4:44 pm #97145
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    you’re welcome

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