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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Dec 2008 Q2 Candel
Dear Sir,
I can’t understand why the accumulated amortisation is ignored (5th line in the trial balance) when calculating the amortisation charge? I can see the same in the kaplan revision kit. They’ve taken 20% of 20000 for calculating amortisation.
Shouldn’t it be
Capitalised Development expenditure b/f @ 1st Oct 2007 – 20000
Accumalated amortisation b/f @ 1st Oc 2007 – (6000)
14000
20% Reducing balance (2800)
CV at 30 sep 2008 11200
Your clarification would be much appreciated?
Read the last sentence in note (ii) of the question and then tell me why you think amortization should be calculated on a reducing balance basis