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Dear Sir,
I can’t understand why the accumulated amortisation is ignored (5th line in the trial balance) when calculating the amortisation charge? I can see the same in the kaplan revision kit. They’ve taken 20% of 20000 for calculating amortisation.Shouldn’t it be
Capitalised Development expenditure b/f @ 1st Oct 2007 – 20000
Accumalated amortisation b/f @ 1st Oc 2007 – (6000)
14000
20% Reducing balance (2800)
CV at 30 sep 2008 11200Your clarification would be much appreciated?
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