Skip to content

Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

debt ratio

Jjess11y ago
1)may i know how to calculate debt ratio? i) debt/ debt+equity ii) total debt/ total asset 2)why scrip issue will result in fall in market price per share?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
or the gearing ratio it is debt / debt + equity or debt / total assets less current liabilities Both are the same. Total assets - current liabilities = equity + long-term debt A scrip issue it the same as a bonus issue. So shareholders receive extra shares free. Because they are not paying in any more, the total value of the shares must remain unchanged. This means that if they have more shares, then the MV per share must be lower.
Jjess11y ago#2
when it mentions debt ratio, what is its formula actually?
Jjess11y ago#3
in Bpp textbook, the formula for debt ratio is total debt : total asset. debt ratio formula is different from the gearing ratio formula. why it is total debt and total asset instead of long term debt/ total asset-current liabilty?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#4
It is as I have written above!
Jjess11y ago#5
why it is total debt and total asset instead of long term debt/ total asset-current liabilty?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#6
Because it is long term debt as a ratio of total long-term finance. Total long-term finance is the same as total assets minus current liabilities.
Sign into reply to this topic.