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debt ratio

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › debt ratio

  • This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 29, 2014 at 1:51 pm #214408
    jess
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆☆

    1)may i know how to calculate debt ratio?
    i) debt/ debt+equity
    ii) total debt/ total asset

    2)why scrip issue will result in fall in market price per share?

    November 29, 2014 at 4:23 pm #214451
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    or the gearing ratio it is debt / debt + equity
    or debt / total assets less current liabilities

    Both are the same. Total assets – current liabilities = equity + long-term debt

    A scrip issue it the same as a bonus issue. So shareholders receive extra shares free. Because they are not paying in any more, the total value of the shares must remain unchanged. This means that if they have more shares, then the MV per share must be lower.

    November 29, 2014 at 4:47 pm #214463
    jess
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆☆

    when it mentions debt ratio, what is its formula actually?

    November 29, 2014 at 5:17 pm #214475
    jess
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆☆

    in Bpp textbook, the formula for debt ratio is total debt : total asset. debt ratio formula is different from the gearing ratio formula.

    why it is total debt and total asset instead of long term debt/ total asset-current liabilty?

    November 29, 2014 at 5:17 pm #214477
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is as I have written above!

    November 29, 2014 at 5:20 pm #214479
    jess
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆☆

    why it is total debt and total asset instead of long term debt/ total asset-current liabilty?

    November 30, 2014 at 7:50 am #214587
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because it is long term debt as a ratio of total long-term finance.
    Total long-term finance is the same as total assets minus current liabilities.

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