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D'13 – Polestar

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › D'13 – Polestar

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • January 28, 2016 at 5:26 pm #298343
    cara12
    Participant
    • Topics: 21
    • Replies: 51
    • ☆☆

    Hi Mike,

    For contingent consideration, why do we deduct the amount agreed on at acquisition of $1.8m from Goodwill rather than the $1.5m amount on which it was finally estimated?

    Concerning pup calculation, why is it calculated based on $9m rather than $5.4?

    January 29, 2016 at 5:49 am #298405
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because, at date of acquisition $1.8 was the best estimate. The goodwill is calculated as at a moment in time. Subsequent events that cause those figures to change belong in the subsequent period.

    However, there is the alternative matter that is the first year review. If, within the first twelve months following acquisition, there is a re-assessment of the values as at acquisition date, then they WILL be used to adjust the working W2 values.

    This is NOT the same as the contingency where that value changed as a result of subsequent events.

    The $1.5 million still in inventory is 1.5 of the 9 million invoiced back to Polestar

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