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D-13 q 1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › D-13 q 1

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 27, 2015 at 3:46 pm #249602
    Syeda Sidra Batool
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi sir

    plz explain how TDA is calculated??
    again confused!

    it is 1250 * .1 = 125
    and balancing allowance is 500.

    Why not deducted scrap value of 500 from 1250 and tda (1250-500)*.1 =75

    May 27, 2015 at 4:28 pm #249617
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume by TDA you mean tax allowable depreciation! (Don’t call it TDA in the exam – the market will have no idea what you mean 🙂 )

    The cost is 1250, so the depreciation is 125 per year.
    After 4 years deprecation the written down value will be 1250 – (4 x 125) = 750.
    The sale proceeds are 500, so the balancing allowance is 750 – 500 = 250.

    (The examiners answer shows the 250 as two separate figures, which is a bit silly but is the same in total).

    It might help you to watch the lectures where I work through the whole of this question.
    You can find the links on this page:

    https://opentuition.com/acca/afm/afm-revision-lectures/

    May 28, 2015 at 8:16 am #249739
    Syeda Sidra Batool
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    thanks loads.

    May 28, 2015 at 9:23 am #249774
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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