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When operating a cycle to work scheme the employer is required to charge a nominal rental amount with/without the option to purchase at end. Is it right for an employer to charge more than what is borrowed? Ie £950 sacrificed, £750 collected in loan payments and then sell but to employee for say £500? (Notional figures).
I’ve always just split the original purchase price evenly over the installments. As I understand it, you treat the installments as a rental charge, which offsets the depreciation of the bike through the p+l, plus vat on the rental charges
Cycle to work is a pain in the rear, and not really worth doing these days
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