- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- September 24, 2020 at 7:20 am #586508
In another question cs ratio is 55 %. Variable cost per unit is 1.5. In the answer the selling price has been derived like this 1.5/1-0.55=3.33. I don’t understand the concept behind that computation. What’s going on here ?
September 24, 2020 at 9:31 am #586531I assume that you have watched all of my free lectures relating to this and that you are therefore happy that contribution = sales less variable costs, and that the CS ratio is the contribution divided by the selling price.
If the contribution is 55% of the sales, then the variable costs must be 45% of the sales.
The variable cost is 1.50 and since they are 45% of the selling price, then the selling price must be 1.50 / 45% = $3.33
September 24, 2020 at 11:28 am #586540My brain was stuck on this problem for hours. Thank you for providing the relief. XD
September 24, 2020 at 12:42 pm #586546You are welcome 🙂
- AuthorPosts
- The topic ‘CVP’ is closed to new replies.