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CVP

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › CVP

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 24, 2020 at 7:20 am #586508
    chughtai20
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 52
    • ☆☆

    In another question cs ratio is 55 %. Variable cost per unit is 1.5. In the answer the selling price has been derived like this 1.5/1-0.55=3.33. I don’t understand the concept behind that computation. What’s going on here ?

    September 24, 2020 at 9:31 am #586531
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume that you have watched all of my free lectures relating to this and that you are therefore happy that contribution = sales less variable costs, and that the CS ratio is the contribution divided by the selling price.

    If the contribution is 55% of the sales, then the variable costs must be 45% of the sales.

    The variable cost is 1.50 and since they are 45% of the selling price, then the selling price must be 1.50 / 45% = $3.33

    September 24, 2020 at 11:28 am #586540
    chughtai20
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 52
    • ☆☆

    My brain was stuck on this problem for hours. Thank you for providing the relief. XD

    September 24, 2020 at 12:42 pm #586546
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘CVP’ is closed to new replies.

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