Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Currency Swaps dec 2004
- This topic has 10 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by John Moffat.
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- June 7, 2016 at 6:54 pm #320528
How do u calculate the annual percentage of interest saving here?
This is wat I did and its halfway wrong with the MS, can u help me how to do this?June 7, 2016 at 7:19 pm #320535This is the MS for part ii)
June 7, 2016 at 7:26 pm #320538Can u explain me how to get the best case and worst case rates for each yrs?
Fees should be deducted nah, why adding here?
Explain me the down part as well with worst case rates -23.42 0.27, how do arrive at these figures….June 8, 2016 at 8:11 am #320705First question:
The question says that Galeplus gets 75% of any benefit after deducting bank fees.
Therefore they save 75% x (2.55% – 0.75%) = 1.35%
But surely you could see that from the workings in the answer?
June 8, 2016 at 8:15 am #320706Why on earth should fees be deducted? The question says that they are earning fees.
The best and worst case PV’s are arrived at by converting the rubbits PV’s to GBP PV’s at the best and worst case exchange rates that are show above.
Please do not post any more scans of books – it is breach of copyright.
June 8, 2016 at 8:29 am #320719Ok got some idea, thnks for the reply.
Srry about the scanned image, theres alot to type 🙂June 8, 2016 at 9:26 am #320751You are welcome 🙂
August 12, 2023 at 11:58 am #689787Hello Sir,
Please confirm the overall arbitrage opportunity from using a currency swap is 2.55% is the sum of the fixed interest rate of 2.05 and floating of 0.5 i am a bit confused because the answer has the fixed interest as a negative -2.05%?
August 13, 2023 at 8:27 am #689835The answer states that the overall benefit is 2.55%. It seems you are just looking at one part of the workings – read the sentence below in the answer 🙂
August 21, 2023 at 10:48 am #690372Thank you Sir
August 21, 2023 at 6:41 pm #690406You are welcome 🙂
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