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currency option

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › currency option

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 28, 2016 at 11:45 am #329977
    kash
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    for question kenduri co (6/13) payment in dollars 2.4 m, the unhedge amount is divided by 1.5996 which is the 3 month forward , why didn’t we use 1.6037
    dollar : pound
    spot 1.5938 – 1.5962
    3 month forward 1.5996- 1.6037

    whereas for question MJY (12/05)
    PAYMENT in dollars 110000, the overhedge amount is divided by 1.7982

    dollar : pound
    spot 1 1.7982 – 1.8010
    3 mths forward 1.7835- 1.7861

    why have the examiner use spot rate for one and forward rate for the other.
    does it depend on over or under hedge.

    thank you sir

    July 28, 2016 at 2:41 pm #330003
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In Kenduri they have under hedged and therefore need to buy $’s forward. The forward rate for buying $’s is 1.5996.

    In MJY the only place in the answer that the spot rate has been used is for the calculation of the premium payable, because the premium is always payable immediately. It has nothing to do with over or under hedging.

    I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on foreign exchange risk management.

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