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Credit Impaired Financial Assets

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Credit Impaired Financial Assets

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • August 13, 2023 at 2:14 am #689811
    simranxdeep
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 59
    • ☆☆

    Hi,
    In section 8.5.5, example 18 in the Study Hub, it says that the carrying amount of the bond would increase by $43,641 & this amount would be shown in SOFP as “Loss Allowance” and as “Impairment Gain” in SOPL.
    My question is, how can a GAIN in carrying value be shown as a Loss Allowance? And what exactly is Impairment Gain?
    Many Thanks 🙂

    August 13, 2023 at 9:45 am #689842
    parag
    Participant
    • Topics: 9
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    is this like a reversal of impairment ?

    so its reversing the previous expenditure.

    August 13, 2023 at 5:58 pm #689857
    simranxdeep
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 59
    • ☆☆

    Okay, but as per what I understand, loss allowance is like a provision which is supposed to be created against the Assets. Then why is here a gain in Fair Value of the asset being shown as Loss Allowance?

    August 14, 2023 at 4:21 pm #689895
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3436
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If a loss allowances REDUCES, there would be an impairment gain.

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