Question 14a.6 from BPP
The actual hour worked is 9400
Original budget hour work is 9000
It mean the labour hour is longer than we expected . Then it should be (400x4$) 1600 (A) ?
As the answer shown 1600( F ) .
Can you pls explain?
Thanks Mr John
Ask the Tutor ACCA MA
Cost variances
The question is asking for the fixed overhead capacity variance. They managed to work more hours than budgeted and therefore the variance is favourable. I do explain this and the reason for it in my free lectures on fixed overhead variances.
Thanks for your reply . Can you pls help me question 14a13
1- Based on your lecture :
Actual purchase @ actual cost 110.000
Actual purchase @ standard cost = 50$ x actual kg purchase( which I can't find that actual kg)
But The answer shows 50$ x 2000 unit . I'm confused with this 2000 unit . As this is unit produced , not Kg of material ?
2- On the top , the question show " " number of units produced budget -2200 and actual 2000 "
Buf the bottom also show " the actual number of units produced was 2000"
Should I understand it's the same actual unit produced ? As its repeated , so I'm confused .
Thanks Mr.John
1. Your workings are the workings for the material expenditure variance. However the question does not ask for the expenditure variance - it asks for the total materials variance.
The total variance compares the actual cost of the actual units produced with the standard cost of the actual units produced.
2. Yes - the actual units produced were 2,000 !
Thanks for your reply
Question 14b3 from BPP
I'm struggling with this question . I don't know where to start to calculate actual production .
Can you pls show me the way ? Thanks Mr John
My workings for for 14b 3 :
The difference between actual purchase @ actual cost ( $2400) and actual purchase @ standard cost is 800(A) .
So actual purchase @ standard cost is 1600$ . It mean actual purchase is 800kg .
But when I devide this 800kg with standard kg per unit ( 5kg ) . The results is only 160 units
What should I do to have 200 unit ?
Thanks Mr John
This is really the same logic as your previous question.
The total materials variance is 800 - 400 = 400 adverse.
The total materials variance is the difference between the actual total cost and the standard cost of the actual production.
You know that the actual total cost is $2,400.
You know that the standard cost of actual production is therefore 2400 - 400 = $2,000.
You know that the standard cost per unit is $10.
Therefore the actual production is 2,000/10 = 200 units.
Ahhhhhhh I've got it .
I think it will be easier for me to calculate separately as what you taught in the previous chapter .
So I'll have that 800 of actual kg when I calculate expenditure variance .
And I'll use that 800kg to calculate usages variance , then I'll have units produced :)))
Your calculation is the easiest to remember .
Thanks Mr John ( pls don't close the topic . I have few questions to ask in the chapter
You are welcome.
If you have more questions, but on different questions from the Revision Kit, then you must ask them in a new thread.
The reason is that we do not offer free private tuition, and so our answers are for the benefit of all students - many use the search box to see if their problem has already been dealt with.
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