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As i hear in lectures that we always use Ex-div value..
And About to pay means its Cum div valueSo in question 175 it need to be 4.50+.5=5(ex-div) as a price of share
But actually its not..book use 4.50 value to find the Cost of equity..
Plz help me sir if you find me wrong…
To go from cum div to ex div you subtract the dividend about to be paid – you do not add it – check my lectures again 🙂
The answer does not use 4.50 as the value, it uses 4.50 – 0.50, which is correct.
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