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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Cost of Debt
The pre-tax cost of debt has been determined at 4·1% for loan notes B. after unbundling pre tax cost of debt of loan B will increase by 0.3% And the tax rate is 20%.
According to Model Answer post tax cost of debt = (4.1%+0.3%)*80% = 3.52%
But you have told in your lecturer video that after tax cost of debt should not be computed via IRR and not as above method. i am confused sir.
Which question are you referring to?
March June 2021 Q1 Kawa Co and Lahla Co
For redeemable debt, the cost of debt is the IRR of the after tax flows.
However there is no mention here as to when the debt is redeemable and so we have no choice but to treat it as though irredeemable, in which case the cost of debt to the company is the pre-tax cost x (1 – t).
(The examiner does often allow the same calculation in answers (when the wording is similar) even when the debt is redeemable. Strictly for redeemable debt that is wrong (and obviously calculating the IRR always would get full marks).)
well understood sir.
Thank u very much for clarifying me this point.
You are welcome 🙂
