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- October 23, 2010 at 1:33 am #45656
Did anyone can solve this question for me?
Didcot plc is considering 2 potential new investments to enhance its manufacturing plant. These are mutually exclusive options in that the acceptance of any one investment would prevent investment in the other.
The organisation uses a net present value (NPV) approach to such decisions and uses its weighted average cost of capital (WACC) as the discount factor within the model.
Currently Didcot plc has 300,000 x £1 Ordinary shares and £200,000 of debt. The Ordinary Shareholders expect a yield of 17% and the after-tax cost of debt is 12%.
Details of the two investments in the plant enhancement are as follows:
Investment A has an immediate cash outflow of £50,000 and this would be followed by cash inflows of £20,000 at the end of year 1 and 2, £15,000 at the end of year 3 and 4.
Investment B requires no immediate cash outflow, but £5,000 per annum would be paid at the end of years 1, 2, 3 and 4. Cash inflows of £15,000 would also be received at the end of years 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Assume, for purposes of this case, that the annual cash inflows equate to taxable profits before capital allowances
For investment A, the initial outflow of £50,000 attracts a first year taxation capital allowance of 35% based on the initial investment amount, followed by writing down allowances of 35% of the tax written down value for years 2 and 3. As the investment will be disposed of at the end of year 4 with a nil residual value, the capital allowance to be claimed in year 4 will therefore be a balancing allowance which will reduce the taxation written down value to zero.
[For example if the initial investment had been £100,000, then capital allowances to be claimed would have been £35,000 in year 1, £22,750 for year 2, £14,788 for year 3 (tax written down value at this point = £100,000 – £72,538 = £27,462) and a balancing allowance of £27,462.]
The capital allowance in respect of Investment A is available for offset against taxable profits in each year.
For Investment B no capital allowances are available, but the annual outflows of £5,000 can be set against the £15,000 inflows for taxation purposes, making the taxable profits £10,000 per annum.
Didcot plc pays corporation tax at the rate of 25% of its taxable profits after allowing for capital allowances (where applicable). Assume that taxation in respect of year one profits is paid at the end of year two.
[So, for example if a project has taxable profits (before capital allowances) of, say, £40,000 in year 1 and if the company claims a capital allowance of £35,000, it would be charged corporation tax of 25% x (£40,000 – £35,000) = £1,250 for that year. The £1,250 tax would be paid in year 2.]
Requirements
a) Calculate the net present values of each of the proposed investments and recommend which of the two, if any, should be selected. Give detailed reasons for your recommendation. (35 marks in total)
October 23, 2010 at 3:13 am #69674can anyone solve this
October 23, 2010 at 7:54 pm #69675Here’s my stab at it – What do you think?
First compute WACC to find out the discount rate for the NPV using the information “Currently Didcot plc has 300,000 x £1 Ordinary shares and £200,000 of debt. The Ordinary Shareholders expect a yield of 17% and the after-tax cost of debt is 12%.”
WACC = (% equity x cost of equity) + (% debt x cost of debt)
= (.6 x .17) + (.4 x .12) = .15 or 15%
Next figure out the after tax cash flows for each prospective investment
Investment A has an immediate cash outflow of £50,000 and this would be followed by cash inflows of £20,000 at the end of year 1 and 2, £15,000 at the end of year 3 and 4.
For investment A, the initial outflow of £50,000 attracts a first year taxation capital allowance of 35% based on the initial investment amount, followed by writing down allowances of 35% of the tax written down value for years 2 and 3. As the investment will be disposed of at the end of year 4 with a nil residual value, the capital allowance to be claimed in year 4 will therefore be a balancing allowance which will reduce the taxation written down value to zero.
[For example if the initial investment had been £100,000, then capital allowances to be claimed would have been £35,000 in year 1, £22,750 for year 2, £14,788 for year 3 (tax written down value at this point = £100,000 – £72,538 = £27,462) and a balancing allowance of £27,462.]
Yr 0
-£50,000Yr 1
£20,000 – cash flowYr 2
£20,000 – cash flow
£4,375 – tax savings due to capital allowance (W1)Yr 3
£15,000 – cash flow
£2,844 – tax savings due to capital allowance (W1)Yr 4
£15,000 – cash flow
£1,849 – tax savings due to capital allowance (W1)Yr5
£3,433 – tax savings due to capital allowance (W1)Then we discount the various cash flows to Yr 0 using the WACC of 15% computed previously
YR0 -£50,000
YR1 £17,391 (W2)
YR2 £18,431 (W2)
YR3 £11,733 (W2)
YR4 £9,633 (W2)
YR5 £1,707 (W2)Adding these gives you the NPV for option A of £8,895
For option B the information given is:
Investment B requires no immediate cash outflow, but £5,000 per annum would be paid at the end of years 1, 2, 3 and 4. Cash inflows of £15,000 would also be received at the end of years 1, 2, 3 and 4.
For Investment B no capital allowances are available, but the annual outflows of £5,000 can be set against the £15,000 inflows for taxation purposes, making the taxable profits £10,000 per annum.
Yr0
£0Yr1
+£15,000
-£5,000Yr2
+£15,000
-£5,000
+£1,250 (Tax shield from previous year)Yr3
+£15,000
-£5,000
+£1,250 (Tax shield from previous year)Yr4
+£15,000
-£5,000
+£1,250 (Tax shield from previous year)Yr5
+£1,250 (Tax shield from previous year)Discount these flows back to year 0 using the WACC previously computed
Yr 0
Yr 1 £8,696
Yr 2 £8,506
Yr 3 £7,397
Yr 4 £6,432
Yr 5 £621Adding these gives you the NPV for option B of £31,652
Option B should be selected in has a significantly higher NPV.
It is lower risk as it doesn’t involve a large initial investment.
The positive NPV is not dependent on the tax benefits related to the capital allowances which could be changed by the government in future budgets.
October 27, 2010 at 3:31 pm #69676AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Can you elaborate the workings on the capital allowances and its tax savings properly ? I have been trying to work it out but I can’t it.
October 27, 2010 at 5:15 pm #69677(W1)
For Year 1
£50,000 x .35 = £17,500
The initial cost times the capital allowance rate gives the capital allowance in £. Then tax rate is 25% so tax savings is:
£17,500 x .25 = £4,375
This isn’t actually used until year 2 as mentioned in the original question.For Year 2 our asset balance is now £32,500 as it’s reduced by the capital allowance amount used in Y1 that’s what the question means by “writing down allowances of 35% of the tax written down value for years 2 and 3”
So we have
£32,500 x .35 = £11,375
Multiplied by the tax rate
£11,375 x .25 = £2,844Yr 3 Asset balance is £50,000 – £17,500 – £11,375= £21,125
So we have
£21,125 x .35 = £7,394
Multiplied by the tax rate
£7,394 x .25 = £1,848Yr 4 Asset balance is £50,000 – £17,500 – £11,375 – £7,394 = £13,731
For this year we can use the total asset value as an allowance against our taxes “the capital allowance to be claimed in year 4 will therefore be a balancing allowance which will reduce the taxation written down value to zero.”So we have
£13,731 x .25 = £3,433Hope this helps
October 28, 2010 at 1:15 am #69678thank you very much birdmw
October 28, 2010 at 8:47 am #69679AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Thank you very much for, rate for the capital allowance and WDA tax were the same.It should have been 35% for WDA tax and 25% for the capital allowance tax.
October 28, 2010 at 11:52 am #69680There’s NO capital allowance tax – Corporate tax rate as given in the question is 25% – Written down allowance WDA is not a tax it is the rate (in this case 35%) at which the capital good can be written down for tax purposes. You’ll be in a better position for the exam if you learn and understand the terms otherwise you’ll have difficulties moving from the essay style of the question to the calculations required in order to answer it.
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