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Corporation tax

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK Exams › Corporation tax

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by Tax Tutor.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 20, 2016 at 10:16 am #311864
    esgylove93
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    What does it mean when it says “The dividends were all received from unconnected UK companies?” Means it qualifies for FII?

    April 23, 2016 at 10:28 am #312332
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes it would mean that the dividends were NOT received from associated companies (the correct term) and therefore should be included in the calculation of FII

    May 7, 2016 at 8:36 pm #314052
    hemraj123
    Member
    • Topics: 110
    • Replies: 188
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir, I have a doubt in 1 part of the question 41 Molten-Metal PLC from BPP kit.

    The tax adjusted profit for the year ended 31 March 2015 is 2,470,144. This is before making any deductions required for interest payable.

    Interest payable
    During the year 31 March 2015 Molten metal plc paid loan stock interest of 22,500. Loan stock interest of 3,700 was accrued at 31 March 2015 with the corresponding accrual at 1 April 2015 being 4,200. This loan is used for trading purposes.

    ———————————————————————————————————
    22,500 and 3,700 are deducted from the TTP but why do they add back 4,200?

    Thanks.

    May 9, 2016 at 8:03 pm #314326
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This is the accruals concept from basic accounting. We know that for tax as with accounting interest is deducted on a payable basis not a paid basis. The interest payable therefore for the y/e 31 March 2015 is the amount paid plus the closing accrual and LESS the opening accrual (this was payable last period but paid this period – hence the need for it to be deducted now from what was paid in deriving the payable figure for this period.

    May 13, 2016 at 11:50 am #314922
    hemraj123
    Member
    • Topics: 110
    • Replies: 188
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir, in transferring chargeable gains in groups, should a group consist of 3 companies to transfer the gains to each other?
    Parent
    subsidiary 75% owned by parent and
    sub subsidiary 75% owned by subsidiary)

    Can a group of 2 companies transfer chargeable gains to each other(parent owning 75% of a subsidiary)?

    Thanks

    May 15, 2016 at 5:55 pm #315204
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes as per OT notes – each direct link must be minimum 75% and the indirect / effective must exceed 50% – therefore 75% x 75% = 56.25%
    Yes if parent owns 75% of a subsidiary then they are in the gains group and all the gains group provisions apply

  • Author
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Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
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